When did the indian army or government say it had crossed its perception of the LAC? I have shown you several official Indian statements. You are going by what anonymous twitter sources say.
And the reason why the Kailash range op. was so significant was because that was the first time the Indian side was occupied since 1962, previously it was a buffer zone.
So if it doesn't say it, it wasn't true? Then why did the Chinese government say India crossed LAC in the south (which is pretty much bilateral) and why did the Indian gov not immediately deny this? In fact Indian gov never said anything but allowed the propaganda to perpetuate because it benefit from the propaganda of India "winning".
I've already explained why this is almost certainly something that happened. One can make up their own mind with the general facts.
PLA never occupied anything except the initial move on Pangong Finger 4 (from behind F8) and other parts of the northern side. China's perspective here claims that it is in response to Indian build up and increased patrolling of the 20%. India was silent early on and then claimed the perspective that the whole thing is a Chinese aggressive move to shift LAC west.
Well on this, it's a he said she said but think about a few things. China won 80% of the legacy dispute and is wary of India claiming the whole thing. China offered back in 1959 and countless times after to settle and demarcate the border properly with India with offers that set the border EAST of China's claims. After the war, China took all of its claims and MUCH MUCH more but gave back to India everything that was a part of India (no western power would have done this) and both salami sliced in various way after the war which China offering a return to pre war positions for total ceasefire (showing it has no desire for strategic land win at cost of continued warfare). With China gaining far more ground during the decades of post war salami slicing FROM pre war positions which was a condition offered and accepted for no more warfare. Both performed increased build ups until the remaining 20%. If this latest confrontation was a Chinese aggression move to shift LAC, why would they give back captured land (F4 to F8)? when they held it for nearly a year. If the intention was to move LAC forward, the Chinese did that and achieved the objective. To only disengage? Notice now that disengagement was at the condition of India not stepping east of F3. All of this supports China's perspective in its entirety and if anything disproves India's perspective.
Then think about what China has to gain by stoking flames with India. Look at the progress of each nation. One is clearly working and the other isn't. Who has more to lose to de-stabilising things that are working well? What core interest has China got for picking a war with India, getting all the unwanted attention and propaganda targeting only to win the land and then disengage? Doesn't make any sense.
Methinks India did actually think China was going to be bogged down by Covid back in Jan and Feb and decided to move on the 20%. Hoping for a minimum de facto control. They definitely did not expect Chinese response to be with resolve and so intense (instantly occupying F8 to F4). You can see the Indians were in fact armed and numbered for brawls the entire time. Just the number of captured Indians from March to June shows how many Indians were involved.
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